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So I was looking at this post, and I think I understand how most of the solution goes, but there's one line that's still pretty mysterious to me.

Under the second method that's presented, using characteristic curves, we see the implication $$y dy- x dx = 0 \implies d(y^2-x^2) = 0.$$

I was hoping someone could shed some light on 1) how this move is justified, and 2) why what the motivation is for taking this step?

Bears
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