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I understand the other case $$\log _x\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=-1 $$ but when the log is to the base of a fraction, I don't know how to prove so it is true

user71207
  • 1,543

4 Answers4

2

Hint: $b^y=x\iff (1/b)^{-y}=x$.

1

$$\log_x y=\frac{\log x}{\log y}$$ So $$\log_{1/b}x =\frac{\log x}{\log (1/b)}=\frac{\log x}{-\log b}=-\log_b x$$

Z Ahmed
  • 43,235
0

Solving it for a very general case as follows:

enter image description here

Now to get your result, just put n=-1

0

By definition

$$y=\log_{1/b}x \iff\left(\frac 1 b\right)^y=x\iff \frac 1 {b^y}=x \iff\frac1x=b^y \iff x=b^{-y}\iff -y=\log_b x$$

user
  • 154,566