I understand the other case $$\log _x\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=-1 $$ but when the log is to the base of a fraction, I don't know how to prove so it is true
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1A side remark: Be conscious that this kind of exercise is very academical: bases of logarithms that are $<1$ are never used in practice. – Jean Marie Sep 12 '20 at 06:51
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Does this answer your question? How to show that $- \log_b x = \log_{\frac{1}{b}} x$ – Arnaud D. Sep 14 '20 at 13:07
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Hint: $b^y=x\iff (1/b)^{-y}=x$.
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$$\log_x y=\frac{\log x}{\log y}$$ So $$\log_{1/b}x =\frac{\log x}{\log (1/b)}=\frac{\log x}{-\log b}=-\log_b x$$
Z Ahmed
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By definition
$$y=\log_{1/b}x \iff\left(\frac 1 b\right)^y=x\iff \frac 1 {b^y}=x \iff\frac1x=b^y \iff x=b^{-y}\iff -y=\log_b x$$
user
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