I'm a bit confused by the dirac delta function.
It may sound quite silly, but i'm not quite sure about this.
Let's consider $p(x) = \frac{\delta(x-x_1)}{\delta(x-x_1) + \delta(x-x_2)}$ where $x_1$ and $x_2$ is real number and $x_1 \neq x_2$.
My simple question is then,
can we say $p(x)=1$ for $x=x_1$ and 0 for $x \neq x_1$??
What happen in the case $x_1 = x_2$?
can we say $p(x) = \frac{1}{2}$ for ${}^{\forall} x \in \Re$?
Thank you!