Question: What is the Heine-Borel Theorem saying?
I am working through Hardy's Course of Pure Mathematics (ed.3) and am attempting to understand what the Heine-Borel means (s. V, pp. 186).
Theorem: Suppose that we are given an interval $(a,b)$ and a set of intervals, $I$ each of whose members is included in $(a,b)$. Suppose further that $I$ posses the following properties:
(1) every point of $(a,b)$, other than $a$ and $b$, lies inside at least one interval of $I$.
(2) $a$ is the left-hand end point, and $b$ the right-hand end point, of at least one interval of $I$.
Then it is possible to choose a finite number of intervals from the set $I$ which form a set of intervals possessing the properties (1) and (2).
I am confused as to what this theorem is actually saying.
My interpretation is that there is some arbitrary interval consisting of real numbers, $(a,b)$ and a set of intervals, $I$, and if you were to take all the members of each set in $I$ out of it, and make a set of those, that set would include the exact points of $(a,b)$. Then satisfying those properties, $I$ can be reduced to some intervals which have the same characteristic I just described of it.
But based on the properties, couldn't I just take the interval $(a,b)$ in $I$ and then I got my finite number of intervals, $1$. My instincts tells me no, but I am unsure of why.