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Prove or Disprove: $a \equiv b \mod m$ iff $a^3 \equiv b^3 \mod m$?

I'm trying to determine if this is true or not. I have already proved this going one way. I know that if $a \equiv b \mod m$ then $a^3 \equiv b^3 \mod m$.

How should I start the second direction? I know that I'm starting with $mk=b^3-a^3$ and I need to get down to $mj=b-a$ for some $k,j \in \mathbb{Z}$. Any hints on how to get there?

Bill Dubuque
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complexanalysis
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1 Answers1

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It's easy to find lots of counterexamples. Take positive integers $b > a$ and look for numbers $m$ that divide $b^3 - a^3$ but don't divide $b-a$.

Robert Israel
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