Regarding (ii):
No.
You'd need $|f(1)-f(0)|=1$, $|f(3)-f(1)|=\frac12$ and $|f(3)-f(0)|=\frac13<1-\frac12$, contradiction.
Regarding the general case (i):
For this to make sense, $\phi$ needs to be injective.
Select $x,y,z$ with $\phi(x)<\phi(y)<\phi(z)$.
Then $$\frac1{|\phi(x)-\phi(z)|}=|f(z)-f(x)|\ge |f(z)-f(y)|-|f(y)-f(x)|=\frac1{|\phi(z)-\phi(y)|}-\frac1{|\phi(y)-\phi(x)|}$$
implies $$|\phi(y)-\phi(x)|\cdot |\phi(z)-\phi(y)|\ge |\phi(x)-\phi(z)|\cdot(|\phi(y)-\phi(x)|-|\phi(z)-\phi(y)|) $$
or if we let $a:=\phi(y)-\phi(x)>0, b:=\phi(z)-\phi(y)>0$,
$$ ab\ge(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2, $$
$$ b^2+ab-a^2\ge 0. $$
This implies $b\ge\frac{\sqrt 5-1}2\cdot a$.
From this it follows that the image of $\phi$ is discrete in $\mathbb R$ apart from possibly one limit point at the infimum, hence the image is at most countable, contradicting the injectivity of $\phi$.