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As shown above, given $AB=BC=AC$ and $BE=CF=AD$, to prove $DF=FE=ED$. (there's a typo on the image)

Furthermore, is such property true for any regular $n$-sided polygon?

athos
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2 Answers2

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enter image description hereِTo draw lines AD, CF and BE one way is to draw a circle it's center at in center of triangle and draw tangents on it. Since this can be done in any regular polygon then there are always tangents from vertices which construct another regular polygon.In figure you can easily see that segments between vertices and other tangent are equal. Since the tangents from intersection of tangent lines on circle are equal then the sum of each two tangents construction each side of triangles are equal that means the sides of triangle DEF are equal.

Another method is that connecting the vertices to in-center of polygon. Now draw a circle with arbitrary radius. the intersection of this circle with lines connecting vertices to in-center creates three(for triangle) or n equal chords (for polygon)which construct a regular polygon.

sirous
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  • @athos, I used the fact that tangent fro point with equal distance for the center of a circle are equal. I will add some drawings and edit my answer for more details. – sirous Sep 21 '20 at 08:38
  • I'm sorry but I think you misunderstood the question. In the triangle case, the question is not "how to draw $AD$, $CF$, and $BE$ so they are equal", but "given $AD$, $CF$ and $BE$ equal, prove $DEF$ is equalateral." – athos Sep 21 '20 at 09:54
  • @athos, but the condition for AD=CF=BE is that they must be equal to a circle it's center has equal distance from vertices. From there you can prove that DEF is equilateral. – sirous Sep 21 '20 at 12:25
  • it must be i am slow here, but i really don't see why. – athos Sep 21 '20 at 12:42
  • @athos, I think you have to learn some fundamental theorems of elementary geometry. Then you will find why. You can ask a fried familiar with geometry. – sirous Sep 21 '20 at 12:53
  • Your condescension, as always, is much appreciated, thank you. – athos Sep 21 '20 at 14:49
  • @athos, I do not think I am super.Just wanted to help you, OK I assume you are good in geometry. For last hint: draw lines from center of circle to the vertices of DEF and try to find that DE=EF=FD. It is very simple. Good luck. – sirous Sep 21 '20 at 15:18
  • @sirous this isn't a solution. Sure, if we follow your construction we will ensure that $AD=CF=BE$ are equal and by design the result will also follow. But can we not draw such a figure without following your construction? That is, is it impossible to have equal $AD, CF, BE$ which are not tangents to a central circle? – highgardener Sep 23 '20 at 00:17
  • @sirous For higher polygons this becomes even more serious, because not all polygons can have an inscribed circle. So there might be a way to do such a thing in a heptagon such that the inner heptagon does not even permit an inscribed circle and then your construction can never recreate that (because it assumes that every case is reachable by the inscribed circle method) – highgardener Sep 23 '20 at 00:19
  • @highgardener, I said "one way of drawing these lines is . . .". this mean there can be other methods. using a circle eases reasoning to prove the sides are equal. – sirous Sep 23 '20 at 01:59
  • Take the heptagon case. So many ways of drawing this configuration: what arm lengths we take what angles we have from edges etc. You claim that your method can construct all of these. Thus you've assumed that whenever we have this setting of equal arm lengths: 1 The resulting inner heptagon shares it's center with the parent's center 2 The resulting inner heptagon must be what is called a tangential polygon

    Because these are the only kinds of configurations your method generates. How do you know that with what is given in the problem, the inner polygon is tangential and shares its center?

    – highgardener Sep 23 '20 at 02:29
  • @sirous Just to be sure. We know these happen to be true (?) but is not given. If you prove these, then and only then you can say well then look at my construction: clearly it can reach all configurations because all configurations are like this – highgardener Sep 23 '20 at 02:30
  • @highgardener, I said to OP what to do to prove the sides of inner triangle are equal.It is very easy. – sirous Sep 23 '20 at 02:57
  • @sirous Only if you're sure that it is always possible to reach OP's inner triangle from your construction using some circle. Which I am sure it is. But it needs proof! – highgardener Sep 23 '20 at 03:07
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Before we dive in, let us establish a small result: Let $\omega$ denote a cube root of unity, $$x, y\in \mathbb{R},\quad 0 < y < x < 1, \quad |1+x\omega+y\omega^2| \; \text{ always decreases on increasing } y$$ $$\text{ If the domain is further restricted to }2x-y-1< 0 \text{, it also always decreases on increasing } x$$ Proof:
The expression for squared magnitude of $z(x, y) = 1+x\omega+y\omega^2$ is: $$|z(x, y)|^2 = z(x, y)\cdot\overline{z(x, y)} = (1+x\omega+y\omega^2)(1+x\omega^2+y\omega) = 1+x^2+y^2-x-y-xy$$ This curve is really an elliptic paraboloid rotated by $45^{\circ}$ and with it's vertex shifted to (1, 1, 0). So there is little monotonicity along axes in general but it will do in our restricted domains. Elliptic paraboloid (We can also just take the easy road with partial derivatives here instead of these steps)

  • In $z(a,b)$ if we add $\delta > 0$ in $b$, to get to another point in the domain, (i.e. $0\leq b+\delta<1$), the difference (using the above formula for $|z(x,y)|^2$): $$|z(a, b+\delta)|^2 - |z(a, b)|^2 = \delta^2 + 2\delta b - \delta - a\delta = \delta\cdot (\delta + b -1 + b - a) < (b-a) < 0$$
  • If we are also given that we are restricted to $2x-y-1<0$, and in $z(a, b)$ if we increase $a$, by adding $\delta > 0$ to get to another point in the new restricted domain, i.e. $2(a+\delta) -b -1<0$ i.e. $2a-b-1<- 2\delta$, the difference: $$|z(a+\delta, b)|^2 - |z(a, b)|^2 = \delta^2 + 2\delta a - \delta - b\delta = \delta\cdot (\delta + 2a - b - 1) < \delta\cdot (\delta -2\delta)<0$$

Thus so long as we operate in this restricted domain of $(x, y)$, increasing either or both of them will cause a decrease in $|1+x\omega+y\omega^2|$.


In the main proof we use complex numbers and without loss of generality assume that the triangle $\Delta ABC$ vertices can be placed on the cube roots of unity on the Argand plane. Let $A$ be on the complex number 1, $B$ on $\omega$ and $C$ on $\omega^2$. Denote the complex numbers for $D$, $E$ and $F$ by $z_0$, $z_1$ and $z_2$ respectively. It will be helpful to think of the vector representation of these complex number operations throughout.

$D$ is on $BE$. This means $\vec{BD}$ is a scalar multiple (< 1) of $\vec{BE}$: $$z_0 - \omega = \lambda_0 \cdot (z_1 - \omega), \qquad 0 < \lambda_0 < 1$$ We ignore the degenerate cases of $\lambda_j = 0, 1$ Similarly, we obtain: $$z_1 - \omega^2 = \lambda_1 \cdot (z_2 - \omega^2),\qquad z_2 - 1 = \lambda_2 \cdot (z_0 - 1) \qquad 0 < \lambda_1, \lambda_2 < 1$$ If we make a change of variables: $v_k = z_k - \omega^k$, we note that these represent vectors aligned along arms $AD, BE, CF$, and thus they have equal magnitudes: $|v_0|=|v_1|=|v_2|$. We obtain: $$v_0+1-\omega = \lambda_0\cdot v_1, \qquad 0 < \lambda_0<1$$$$v_1+\omega-\omega^2 = \lambda_1\cdot v_2, \qquad 0 < \lambda_1<1$$$$v_2+\omega^2-1= \lambda_2\cdot v_0, \qquad 0 < \lambda_2<1$$ Just as an aside, adding up we get:$$(1-\lambda_0)\cdot v_1+(1-\lambda_1)\cdot v_2+(1-\lambda_2)\cdot v_0=0$$ But more importantly we have a complex system of equations parameterized by $\lambda_j$ which we hope to be able to solve and get $v_j$s of equal magnitude: $$\begin{bmatrix}1&-\lambda_0&0\\0&1&-\lambda_1\\-\lambda_2&0&1\end{bmatrix}\cdot\begin{bmatrix}v_0\\v_1\\v_2\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}\omega-1\\\omega-\omega^2\\\omega^2-1\end{bmatrix}$$ $$\iff\begin{bmatrix}v_0\\v_1\\v_2\end{bmatrix}=\frac{1}{1-\lambda_0\lambda_1\lambda_2}\cdot\begin{bmatrix}1&\lambda_0&\lambda_0\lambda_1\\\lambda_1\lambda_2&1&\lambda_1\\\lambda_2&\lambda_2\lambda_0&1\end{bmatrix}\cdot\begin{bmatrix}\omega-1\\\omega-\omega^2\\\omega^2-1\end{bmatrix}$$ For us, the complex numbers $\omega-1$, $\omega-\omega^2$, $\omega^2-1$ are just representatives of three equal magnitude vectors aligned equally from each other. Each of the $v_is$ is the vector formed by this combination of these equally aligned equal magnitude vectors: $$[1\quad \lambda_i \quad \lambda_i\lambda_{i+1}]_{i=0,1,2} \qquad (\lambda_3\equiv\lambda_0) $$ and so far as the magnitude of $v_i$s is concerned it doesn't matter which weight is assigned to which.

So can we find distinct $\{\lambda_0, \lambda_1, \lambda_2\}$ such that these three combinations on equal magnitude and equally inclined vectors result in vectors of equal magnitude?

Assume without loss of generality $\lambda_0\leq\lambda_1\leq\lambda_2$. We will consider these combinations over the roots of unity, i.e. $1+\lambda_i\omega+\lambda_i\lambda_{i+1}\omega^2$. Firstly we note that except the last combination above i.e. $[1 \quad \lambda_2 \quad \lambda_2\lambda_0]$, the other combinations $[1 \quad \lambda_i \quad \lambda_i\lambda_{i+1}]$ are in the restricted domain we discussed in our little lemma. Because:

  • $0<\lambda_i\lambda_{i+1}<\lambda_i<1$
  • $-(1-\lambda_i)^2<0\iff 2\lambda_i - \lambda_i^2 -1<0 \implies 2\lambda_i - \lambda_i\lambda_{i+1} -1<0 \;\text{ since, } \lambda_i\leq\lambda_{i+1}$

Now consider these first two combinations over the roots of unity: $$1+\lambda_0\omega+\lambda_0\lambda_1\omega^2 \quad \text{ and } \quad 1+\lambda_1\omega+\lambda_1\lambda_2\omega ^2$$ If $\lambda_0<\lambda_1$, the second cannot have the same magnitude, since from the first to second we have increased both coefficients of $\omega^k$s and from our result, strictly decreased the magnitude. So clearly $\lambda_0=\lambda_1$. This will happen again if $\lambda_0=\lambda_1<\lambda_2$ as we would still be increasing the second coefficient. Thus $\lambda_0=\lambda_1=\lambda_2$. But this means each of the equal arms $AD, BE, CF$ is divided in the same ratio by $F, D, E$ respectively, and thus $FD, DE, EF$ are equal. $$\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$


Footnote: Even though the whole reason I took this algebraic complex number approach was to be able to generalize to the case of an $n$-regular polygon, as much as I have struggled, I have not yet succeeded. So posting this one solution I found.