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Let $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ be two power series and $P(x)$ converges iff $Q(x)$ converges. Does this imply that both have the same radius of convergence?

Lucas
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2 Answers2

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Yes.

Indeed, you can define the radius of convergence of a power series $\sum a_n z^n$ as the supremum of the $r \in \mathbb{R}_+$ such that $\sum a_n r^n$ converges.

TheSilverDoe
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Call $R$ the radius of convergence for $P$, and $R^\prime$ the one for $Q$. For $|x|<R$, $P(x)$ converges, so by assumption $Q(x)$ also converges and this implies $|x|\leqslant R^\prime$. But $|x|$ can be chosen as close of $R$ as we want, so $R \leqslant R^\prime$. Doing the same thing for $Q$ instead of $P$, you get $R^\prime \leqslant R$. Finally, $R=R^\prime$

  • what guarantees that $R\leq R'$ by choosing $|x|$ close to $R$ ? – Lucas Sep 30 '20 at 20:13
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    Take $x_n$ such that $|x_n| <R$ and $|x_n| \to R$. Then for all $n$, $|x_n| \leqslant R^\prime$, and taking the limit gives $R \leqslant R^\prime$ –  Sep 30 '20 at 20:19