I know that convergence in probability does not imply convergence in mean. However, does convergence in mean imply convergence in mean square? I can't think of any counter-examples of this so I don't know if it is true or not.
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$X_n\overset{L^2}{{\to}}C$ ($X_n$ converges to C in mean square) if and only if
$$ \begin{cases} lim_nE(X_n)=C, \\ lim_nV(X_n)=0, \\ \end{cases}$$
Now consider the following sequence of rv's
$$ X_n=\begin{cases} \frac{n-1}{n}, & \text{if $X_n=0$ } \\ \frac{1}{n}, & \text{if $X_n=n$ } \end{cases}$$
Note that
$E(X_n)=1$ but
$lim_n V(X_n)=n-1=\infty$
Thus $X_n$ converges in $L^1$ but not in $L^2$
tommik
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