Recall that Dirichlet showed the following:
For every real number $x$ and every $Q>1$, there exists an integer vector $(p,q)\in \mathbb Z^2$ such that $|xq-p|<1/Q$ and $0<q<Q$.
I wonder if the following is true:
For every real number $x$ and every $\epsilon>0$, there exists $Q_{\epsilon}$ such that for all $Q>Q_{\epsilon}$, there is an integer vector $(p,q)\in \mathbb Z^2$ such that $|xq-p|<\epsilon/Q$ and $0<q<Q$.
Of course this is trivially true when $x$ is rational, but I don't know what happens when $x$ is irrational (in particular when it is transcendental).
Note the Lerendre's theorem should be a special case of this by taking $\epsilon=1$ and we can always assume $Q>Q_{\epsilon} \ge 1$.
Update: As per the comments by rtybase below, by Liouville's theorem (on diophantine approximation), my statement is false if $x$ is algebraic. But what happens when $x$ is transcendental?