I've just been wondering: Is $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{p_{n+1}}{p_n}=1$$ Essentially I am asking if the primes become more spread out the larger they are, or if the ratio between successive terms decreases adymptotically to $1$. Thanks for any comments or responses.
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Yes it is, see this. – rtybase Oct 04 '20 at 22:02
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1@rtybase thanks for that, interesting! – A-Level Student Oct 04 '20 at 22:06