I have encountered such a integral formula that I cannot prove. $$\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\cos(m(x-y))\cos(n(x-y))dx=\pi\delta_{mn}(2-H_1(m))$$ where $H_1(m)=\begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } m=0\\ 1 & \text{if } m\geq1 \end{cases}$
If being converted to the known form $\int\cos mx\cos nx dx$, but then the bounds become very complicated \begin{align} I(t)&=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\cos(m(x-y))\cos(n(x-y))dx\\ &=\int_{-\pi-y}^{\pi-y}\cos(mt)\cos(nt)dt\\ &=\frac{1}{2}\int_{-\pi-y}^{\pi-y}\cos((m+n)t)+\cos((m-n)t)dt\\ &=\left|\frac{\sin(m+n)t}{2(m+n)}\right|_{-\pi-y}^{\pi-y}+\left|\frac{\sin(m-n)t}{2(m-n)}\right|_{-\pi-y}^{\pi-y} \end{align}