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I know this is a simple question, but I am struggling a bit. What I have so far is. Let $A, B$ be arbitrary elements in $\Bbb Z$ and assume $A\mid B$ and $B\mid A$ is true. $A=B \Rightarrow \dfrac{A}{B}=\dfrac{B}{B} \Rightarrow \dfrac{A}{B} =1$ and $A=B \Rightarrow \dfrac{A}{A}=\dfrac{B}{A}\Rightarrow 1=\dfrac{B}{A}$. Therefore $A$ and $B$ are elements in the set and are equal to each other.

Does this prove the statement?

Darsen
  • 3,549

1 Answers1

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We have $a,b\in\Bbb Z\setminus\{0\}$. If $a\mid b$ then $a=rb$ for some $r\in\Bbb Z$. If $b\mid a$ then $b=sa$ for some $s\in\Bbb Z$. Then $a=rb=rsa\Rightarrow rs=1\Rightarrow r,s=\pm1$, so $a=\pm b$.

Darsen
  • 3,549