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Can anyone explain going from step 2 to 3 to me.
I can not for the life of me figure it out but the rest makes sense.
I don't see how ln(x) became a partial derivative inside the integral.
Any help is much appreciated!

https://wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/cd9db519e08e3c72cd6f9e2f0c90a7c57bdba035

StubbornAtom
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rjalnev
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    $\frac{\partial}{\partial \alpha} x^{\alpha-1}=x^{\alpha-1} \ln(x)$, they took that in reverse. – Ian Oct 13 '20 at 23:11
  • Hey rjalnev. To make this question easier for people to answer, you should consider writing out the steps that are shown in the link so that people can know what they of problem this is before clicking on anything. – Milo Moses Oct 13 '20 at 23:20
  • Ah! So simple. Thank you! You have no idea how long I've been trying stuff. And yes, I will keep that in mind in the future and write out the equations until I can post images inline. Thank you both! – rjalnev Oct 14 '20 at 03:29
  • https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2085184/321264 – StubbornAtom Oct 14 '20 at 14:31

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