Does there exist a function $f$ such that $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}:f^3(x) + f^2(x) \cdot x^2 = 1$?
I haven't studied functional equations so I have no idea how to solve this problem. I think I proved it's impossible if $f$ is polynomial (it would have to be $f(x) = 1 - x^2$, but that doesn't work). But what I really want to do is the opposite, I want to find $f$ with this property, as it would work as a counter-example to some phenomena I'm investigating about derivatives.
Is it possible?