I have a question regarding the following solution, which seems to be wrong but I don't know why exactly.
Suppose we have the problem:
$$\inf_x \left\{ \frac{1}{2}e\|x\|^2_2-\langle m,x\rangle\right\}$$
for positive scalar $e$ and vectors $x,m\in\mathbb{R}^n$. The $\langle,\rangle$ denotes the inner product. Now taking gradient one sees that the solution needs to satisfy
$$ ex -m =0 \iff x = \frac{1}{e}m$$
I wanted to solve it by writing $x$ as $x=\lambda u$ with a unit vector $u$ and a scalar $\lambda\ge 0$, i.e. direction and length of $x$. Then the above is equivalent to
$$\inf_{\lambda\ge 0}\inf_{u,\|u\|=1} \left\{ \frac{1}{2}e\|\lambda u\|^2_2-\langle m,\lambda u\rangle \right\} =\inf_{\lambda\ge 0}\inf_{u,\|u\|=1} \left\{ \frac{1}{2}e\lambda^2-\langle m,\lambda u\rangle\right\}$$
the infimum over $u$ is attained for $u=m$, hence
$$\inf_{\lambda\ge 0}\frac{1}{2}e\lambda^2-\lambda \|m\|_2$$
since both is positive, $e$ and $\|m\|$ the best I can get is $\lambda = 0$, i.e. the infimum is zero, which is not the same as above. Where is my mistake?