My thinking:
$\int_4^\infty\int_1^\infty 0.5e^{(-0.5x)} \,dxdy= $ $\int_4^\infty e^{-0.5} dy $ but when I integrate this I get $e^{-0.5}y\Biggr|_{4}^{\infty}$ which equals $\infty$ what am I doing wrong?
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4The joint PDF is $f(x) f(y)$, not just $f(x)$. – angryavian Oct 21 '20 at 05:28
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what would f(y) be then. It's not given in the problem? – Oct 21 '20 at 05:31
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1The wording is ambiguous, but I think the problem is implying that $Y$ has the same distribution as $X$. – angryavian Oct 21 '20 at 06:14
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It does! Thank you so much! – Oct 21 '20 at 18:08