I am wondering about the following question:
Given a (countable) sequence of nested open balls:
$$ B_1 \supseteq B_2 \supseteq \cdots $$ Not necessarily having the same same center. All having radius bounded from below, say by $r > 0$. Then can we say that $$\bigcap_{i=1}^{\infty} B_i \neq \varnothing$$ it is certainly true in the reals, as one can simply go to the point where the radii are close to $r$ then take the center of that ball. However, I'm having trouble seeing whether or not it is true in the general case. So thanks in advance for proof or counterexample.