$$ \begin{aligned} &\text { Suppose }|f(x)| \leq g(x) \text { for all } x . \text { What can you conclude about } \lim _{x \rightarrow a} f(x) \text { if } \lim _{x \rightarrow a} g(x)=0 ?\\ &\text { What if } \lim _{x \rightarrow a} g(x)=5 ? \end{aligned} $$
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2Try sketching a graph. – saulspatz Nov 01 '20 at 05:32
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2Hint: remember that $|f(x)|\le g(x)$ is equivalent to $-g(x) \le f(x) \le g(x)$. – Greg Martin Nov 01 '20 at 05:38
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yes I know $ -g(x) \leq f(x) \leq g(x) $. But I don't know why that relates to the limits. – Jim Danger Nov 01 '20 at 05:46
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1Re Greg Martin's comment, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Squeeze_theorem. – user2661923 Nov 01 '20 at 05:56
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Thank you. I will peruse. – Jim Danger Nov 01 '20 at 05:57
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$|f(x)| \leq g(x)$ means that $$-g(x) \leq f(x) \leq g(x)$$
If $g(x)\to 0$, then $-g(x)\to 0$ too! Can we use the Sandwich theorem?
However, if $g(x)\to 5$, then $-g(x) \to -5$ and not much can be said about $\lim_{x\to a}f(x)$ in this case.
stoic-santiago
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