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I am attempting to disprove following statement with counter example.

If $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}$ converges and lim $b_{n}$ = 0, then $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_{n}b_{n}$ converges

My work: If a series converges then lim $ a_{n} $ = 0. All of the examples I am trying to construct are turning out to be convergent. Can I get some help here?

weedfarmer
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    Hint: if $a_n$ was always positive (or converged absolutely) you could prove the property to be true fairly easily... so you will need to consider $a_n$ to be a convergent series that is not absolutely convergent; think of an alternating series maybe. – User8128 Nov 02 '20 at 03:51

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[Counter-Example] : $a_{n}=b_{n}=\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}$