The second definition isn’t quite right: you’re defining $\alpha$-order convergence, so $\alpha$ should be a free variable. It should say simply that there is a $\lambda>0$ such that $\lim\limits_{k\to\infty}\frac{\|p_{k+1}-p\|}{\|p_k-p\|^\alpha}=\lambda$.
And it is definitely stronger than the first definition. Let
$$p_k=\left(\frac12\right)^{2^k}$$
for $k\in\Bbb N$; clearly $\langle p_k:k\in\Bbb N\rangle$ converges to $0$, and
$$\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^{k+1}}\right|\le\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^k}\right|$$
for all $k\in\Bbb N$, so by the first definition the sequence is $1$-convergent with $\lambda=1$. It is also $2$-convergent:
$$\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^{k+1}}\right|=\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^k}\right|^2\,.$$
However,
$$\frac{\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^{k+1}}\right|}{\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^k}\right|}=\left(\frac12\right)^{2^{k+1}-2^k}=\left(\frac12\right)^{2^k}$$
converges to $0$ as $k$ increases without bound, so the sequence is not $1$-convergent by the second definition. It is $2$-convergent by the second definition:
$$\frac{\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^{k+1}}\right|}{\left|\left(\frac12\right)^{2^k}\right|^2}=1$$
for all $k\in\Bbb N$.
It’s not hard to check that if a sequence is $\alpha$-convergent by the second definition, it is $\beta$-convergent by the first definition whenever $0<\beta\le\alpha$.