We are asked to evaluate the following sum
$$\sum_{r=1}^\infty {r\over (r+1)!}$$
I thought it best to write the expression out as a difference and use the method of differences to find the sum.
However, how would one go about converting it into a difference? I lucked upon the solution, as it turns out:
$$ {r\over (r+1)!} \equiv {1 \over r!} - {1\over (r+1)!} $$
But it was simply a result of me playing about and was not rigorous at all. What would've been a sure-fire method to reach this? More generally how should one approach expression like these when looking to convert them into differences, similar to how converting some expressions like ${1\over 4r^2-1 }$ into partial fractions can ease the solution?