I am trying (unsuccessfully) to find the following limit:
$$ \lim_{t \to \infty} \frac{1}{t^2}\int_0^t\ln(2e^x+x^2)dx $$
Some background - supposedly, this exercise is meant to be similar to what we've done in class, where we found the limit: $$\lim \limits_{t \to 0} \frac{1}{t}\int _1^e \ln \left(1+\frac{t}{x}\right)dx$$
We started by simplifying the integral to: $$ \int _1^e \ln \left( x+t \right) dx- \int _1^e \ln \left( x \right) dx$$
and using change of variables and the integral's additivity, arrived at the following: $$ \int _e^{e+t} \ln(y)dy - \int _1^{1+t} \ln(x)dx $$
At this point we've used the mean value theorem, namely that there exist $c_t \in [e,e+t] $ and $d_t \in [1,1+t] $ such that:
$$ \int _e^{e+t} \ln(y)dy - \int _1^{1+t} \ln(x)dx = (e+t-e)\ln(c_t) - (1+t-1)\ln(d_t) = t\left(\ln(c_t) - \ln(d_t)\right) $$
and therefore our limit is:
$$\lim \limits_{t \to 0} \frac{1}{t} \int _1^e \ln \left(1+\frac{t}{x}\right)dx = \lim_{t \to 0} [\ln(c_t) - \ln(d_t)] = \ln(e) - \ln(1) = 1$$
Where we used the squeeze theorem and ln's continuity for the last steps.
I am unsure how to use the mean value theorem when $ t \to \infty $, I've tried using the change of variables $ y = \frac{1}{x} $ in order to turn the upper limit from $t$ to $\frac{1}{t}$ (which approaches zero similarly to what we've done in class), but this also means that the lower limit switches from $0$ to $\infty$ so I didn't see how this method would work.
I would appreciate any and all help/advice.