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I was going through a proof that $S^n\times S^n$ and $S^n\vee S^n \vee S^{2n}$ are not homotopy equivalent spaces. Both spaces have the same cohomology groups in degree $n$ and $2n$, namely

$$H^k(\ \cdot\ ;\Bbb{Z}) = \begin{cases} \mathbb{Z}\oplus \Bbb{Z} & k = n \\ \mathbb{Z} & k = 2n \end{cases}$$

Now the proof states the following

$H^*(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n};\mathbb{Z})$ is a subring of $H^*(S^n;\mathbb{Z})\times H^*(S^n;\mathbb{Z}) \times H^*(S^{2n};\mathbb{Z})$. Thus the product of any two degree $n$ elements is trivial.

Could someone please elaborate why the subring property implies the product of any two degree $n$ elements is trivial? It would be really helpfull if someone could demonstrate how the product in this case looks like.

And what precisely is meant by trivial cup product anyway? I was under the impression that the cup product is called trivial whenever the product vanishes i.e. if $a\smile b = 0$, but we are also calling products $ab$ trivial if one factor is the unit, don't we? What is meant in the above statement?

Thanks for any help!

Kevin.S
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Zest
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1 Answers1

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As what Nick L has pointed out, there is a more direct argument, and you can even triangulate the space and use the definition to conclude that cup products are trivial (i.e. vanish).

The subring property is given by Mayer-Vietoris sequence (I think). It induces isomorphisms $$\eta:H^p(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n})\to H^p(S^n)\oplus H^p(S^n)\oplus H^p(S^{2n})$$ for all $p>0$, so the direct sum (the following) corresponds to the positive dimension of $H^*(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n})$. $$H^*(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n})\supset\bigoplus_{p>0}(H^p(S^n)\oplus H^p(S^n)\oplus H^p(S^{2n}))$$ Actually, this is already enough for deducing the triviality of cup products.


Edit:

As requested by the OP, I'll elaborate more on this statement. Because we've decomposed the positive dimension part of $H^*(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n})$ into $H^*(S^n)\oplus H^*(S^n)\oplus H^*(S^{2n})$ (the direct sum of three graded polynomial rings), it should be noted that in the definition of graded ring, we have $$\operatorname{im}(H^k(X)\times H^l(X)\overset{\smile}{\to}H^{k+l}(X))\subset H^{k+l}(X)$$ Now it becomes immediate that the cup product of any two degree $n$ elements vanishes, since $H^{2n}(S^n)\cong 0$ and $H^{2n}(S^n\vee S^n)\cong 0$.


But the idea of subring comes in dimension $0$, the MV sequence for wedge products gives $$0\to H^0(X\vee Y)\overset{a}{\to}H^0(X)\oplus H^0(Y)\overset{i^*-j^*}{\to}\Bbb{Z}\to\ldots$$ (Apply this twice to your space) So, $H^*(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n})$ contains triads $(\alpha,\beta,\gamma)\in H^0(S^n)\oplus H^0(S^n)\oplus H^0(S^{2n})$ s.t. their restrictions to the $0$-th cocycle are equal, i.e., their images under the pullback of the inclusion $\{*\}\hookrightarrow S^n$ (resp. $S^{2n}$) are equal. And I think this is probably what the proof mean by "subring".


Supplement (Something that I recall from Evan Chen's Napkin project), :)

It can also be concluded from "the cohomology pseudo-ring" consisting of the direct sum of reduced cohomology groups. Now these two graded pseudo-rings $$\tilde{H}^*(X\vee Y)\cong \tilde{H}^*(X)\oplus \tilde{H}^*(Y)$$ are indeed isomoprhic. Since we also know that the reduced cohomology groups are isomorphic to absolute ones in positive dimensions, this can be passed to the argument of cohomology rings to conclude the triviality of cup products. These two argument actually utilize the same idea to express (part of) the cohomology ring in terms of what we're familiar with.

Kevin.S
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  • Thank you vm Kevin. I will try to understand what you proposed and return if i have any particular question. Thanks a lot! – Zest Nov 08 '20 at 03:04
  • Hi Kevin, one rather naive question maybe but $H^(X\vee V) \to H^(X)\oplus H^(Y)$ means the same as $H^(X\vee V) \to H^(X)\times H^(Y)$ right? (I always feel uncomfortable with direct sums and direct products coinciding on finitely many terms) – Zest Nov 08 '20 at 04:49
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    Actually I also had the same question when I saw these two notations for the first time. The direct sum is isomorphic to the direct product when the index set of the direct summands is finite, which is the case here, so you can think of them as the same in this case. The infinite case is different since we require the direct sum to consist of elements such that all but finitely many coordinates are zero, but such restriction is not stated in the direct product, but we don't have to worry about it here, since we only have two cohomology rings as summands @Zest – Kevin.S Nov 08 '20 at 05:52
  • Great, i already knew this from group theory but i wasn't too sure whether it remains true for rings. Thank you for the reply. Would you mind elaborating why the graded ring structure is already enough for deducing the triviality of cup product? In the first section of your answer. – Zest Nov 08 '20 at 06:05
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    @Zest edited, I'd like to add that because the graded ring property holds and MV sequence shows the decomposition of graded ring, we can make sure that $H^{2n}(S^{2n})$ can't contain the image of any $a\smile b$ s.t. $0\neq a,b\in H^n(S^n\vee S^n\vee S^{2n})$. – Kevin.S Nov 08 '20 at 07:10
  • Ah, that's actually pretty neat. Didn't catch that:) Highly appreciating your responses. Thank you very much Kevin. – Zest Nov 08 '20 at 07:28