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Let $f: M\rightarrow N$ be a continous function between topological spaces, in the case that I am interested we are working with manifolds so we have nice properties. We define the limit set of $L(f)$ as the set of $y\in N$ such that $y=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}f(x_n)$ for some sequence $\{x_n\}$ in $M$ that has no convergent subsequence. Is this set going to be closed ? I have tried taking $y\in \bar L(f)$ and take a sequence $y_n\rightarrow y$ such that $y_n=\lim_{k\rightarrow \infty} f(x_n^k)$. Now I have tried constructing a sequence for $y$ of $f(x_i)$ such that $x_i$ has no convergent subsequence, I have tried a diagonalization argument and so on, but I got nothing. Does anyone know if this is true or not and if so why ?

New edit : As was mentioned in the comments there will be a counterexample if $M$ is not a manifold , so I guess I can change the question to if anyone knows if this is true if we assume that $M$ and $N$ are manifolds?

And if this is not true I guess a thing that would help me is that if $f(M)\cap L(f)= \emptyset$ will we have that $f(M)\cap \bar L(f) =\emptyset$ ?

This is because I am trying to prove that if we have that $f(M)\cap L(f)=\emptyset $ then we will have that there exists an open set $V$ such that $f(M)\subset V$ and $f:M\rightarrow V$ is proper, and $L(f)$ is exactly the points where properness fails, and this are the obvious first choices to create the open set I think.

Thanks in advance.

Someone
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    I believe I can construct a counter-example, so this won't be true in general. I don't know about the case where both $M,N$ are manifolds, but if that's true, it must necessarily rely on some particular properties of these spaces. – Thorgott Nov 07 '20 at 22:10
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    @Thorgott: please tell us about your counter-example. – Rob Arthan Nov 07 '20 at 22:12
  • @RobArthan Take $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$ with the discrete topology and adjoin a point $\infty$ whose basic neighborhoods are of the form ${\infty}\cup{(n,m)\colon n,m\ge k}$ for some natural $k$. Then the map $f\colon\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\cup{\infty}\rightarrow\mathbb{R},(n,m)\mapsto\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{m},\infty\mapsto0$ is continuous and its limit set is ${1/n\colon n\in\mathbb{N}}$, which is not closed in $\mathbb{R}$. – Thorgott Nov 07 '20 at 22:24
  • @Thorgott: thanks. I don't think your example $\Bbb{N}\times\Bbb{N}\cup{\infty}$ admits any sequences with no convergent subsequences (because any sequence whose range is infinite has a convergent subsequence that tends to $\infty$). Or am I missing something? – Rob Arthan Nov 07 '20 at 22:40
  • @RobArthan A sequence $(n_k,m_k)$ converges to $\infty$ iff $n_k\rightarrow\infty$ and $m_k\rightarrow\infty$ (precisely because the open neighborhoods of $\infty$ contain ${(n,m)\colon n,m\ge r}$ for some $r$, forcing both $n$ and $m$ to be large). So a sequence like $((k,n))_k$ for fixed $n$ contains no convergent subsequence and its limit tends to $1/n$. But for $\frac{1}{n_k}+\frac{1}{m_k}$ to tend to $0$, we would need both $n_k\rightarrow\infty$ and $m_k\rightarrow\infty$, whence the sequence $(n_k,m_k)$ would converge to $\infty$. That's why the limit set doesn't contain $0$. – Thorgott Nov 07 '20 at 22:47
  • @Thorgott: thanks again. You are quite right. I wasn't visualising your example correctly. I think you should post it as an answer – Rob Arthan Nov 07 '20 at 22:53
  • A thought: I believe $L(f)$ must be closed if $M=\Bbb R^n$, since one can exploit the fact that $\Bbb R^n$ is the union of the closed balls ${x\colon |x|\le N}$ to help carry out the diagonalization argument the OP sketches. So perhaps $L(f)$ must be closed in a larger class of manifolds, those that can be written as a countable union of (nested?) compact sets. By the way, OP, do you want to restrict attention to manifolds without boundary? – Greg Martin Nov 08 '20 at 08:32
  • Yes let's consider manifolds without boundary, also every manifold as a compact exhaustion, can be written as a countable union of nested compact sets. Can you elaborate on the diagonalization argument ? Thanks @GregMartin – Someone Nov 08 '20 at 08:35

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In general spaces, this property fails. To see this, consider the set $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\cup\{\infty\}$ with the topology $\tau=\{A\subseteq\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\cup\{\infty\}\vert A\subseteq\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\lor(\infty\in A\land\exists k\in\mathbb{N}\colon\{(n,m)\colon n,m\ge k\}\subseteq A)\}$. It is easily checked that this is a first-countable topology such that $(n_k,m_k)_k\rightarrow(n,m)$ iff $n_k=n$ and $m_k=m$ for large enough $k$ and $(n_k,m_k)_k\rightarrow\infty$ iff $n_k\rightarrow\infty$ and $m_k\rightarrow\infty$. It is then easy to see that the function $f\colon\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\cup\{\infty\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R},(n,m)\mapsto\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{m},\infty\mapsto0$ is continuous.

Consider $y\in L(f)$ and a sequence $(x_k)_k$ in $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\cup\{\infty\}$ containing no convergent subsequence and such that $f(x_k)\rightarrow y$. If $x_k=\infty$ for infinitely many $k$, $(x_k)_k$ possesses a constant, hence convergent, subsequence, so $x_k=\infty$ for only finitely many $k$ and, by passing to a subsequence, we may WLOG assume that $x_k=(n_k,m_k)$ with $n_k,m_k\in\mathbb{N}$ for all $k$. Then, $(n_k)_k$ and $(m_k)_k$ cannot be both be bounded, since that would mean they only take on finitely many values, whence $(n_k,m_k)_k$ would possess a constant, hence convergent, subsequence by pingeonholing. Since $f(n,m)=f(m,n)$, we may WLOG assume that $(m_k)_k$ is unbounded, so that there is a subsequence $(m_{k_l})_l$ s.t. $m_{k_l}\rightarrow\infty$. Then $(n_{k_l})_l$ is bounded, since otherwise $(n_{k_l},m_{k_l})_l$ possesses a subsequence converging to $\infty$, hence $(n_{k_l})_l$ possesses a constant subsequence by pigeonholing, so that $(n_k,m_k)_k$ ultimately possesses a subsequence of the form $(n,m_{k_{l_i}})_i$ for some fixed $n$. It follows that $y=1/n$. Conversely, the sequence $(n,k)_k$ for a fixed $n$ possesses no convergent subsequence and $f(n,k)\rightarrow1/n$, so that we obtain $L(f)=\{1/n\colon n\in\mathbb{N}\}$, which is not closed in $\mathbb{R}$. (The idea behind this construction is that adding the point $\infty$ precisely makes those sequences convergent that would otherwise testify $0$ to be in $L(f)$.)

On the other hand, I believe the diagonalization argument can be made to work in a large number of cases:

Proposition: If $M$ is a topological space admitting an exhaustion by sequentially compact sets, $N$ is a first-countable topological space and $f\colon M\rightarrow N$ is any function, then $L(f)$ is closed in $N$.

To say that $M$ admits an exhaustion by sequentially compact sets means that there is an ascending chain $K_1\subseteq K_2\subseteq ...$ of sequentially compact subspaces of $M$ such that $\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}K_i=M$ and $K_i\subseteq\operatorname{int}K_{i+1}$ for all $i$. This is relevant due to the following

Lemma: Let $M$ be a topological space admitting an exhaustion $K_1\subseteq K_2\subseteq...$ by sequentially compact sets. Then a sequence $(x_n)_n$ in $M$ contains no convergent subsequence iff $(x_n)_n$ is eventually in $K_i^c$ for all $i$.

Proof: To see this condition is necessary, assume there is an $i$ s.t. $(x_n)_n$ is not eventually in $K_i^c$. Then there is a subsequence $(x_{n_k})_k$ contained in $K_i$. Since $K_i$ is sequentially compact, this admits a convergent subsequence $(x_{n_{k_l}})_l$, but this is also a convergent subsequence of the original sequence, contrary to hypothesis. To see sufficiency, assume $(x_n)_n$ contains a convergent subsequence $(x_{n_k})_k$ with limit $x$. By exhaustion, there is an $i$ such that $x\in K_i$. Since $K_i\subseteq\operatorname{int}K_{i+1}$, there is an open neighborhood $U\subseteq K_{i+1}$ of $x$. By convergence, there is a $K$ s.t. $x_{n_k}\in U$ for $k>K$. For each $j=1,...,K$, there is an $i_j$ such that $x_{n_j}\in K_{i_j}$. Thus, $(x_{n_k})_k$ lies in $K_{\max\{i_1,...,i_K,i+1\}}$, contrary to hypothesis.

Proof of the Proposition: Since $N$ is first-countable, it suffices to check that if $(y_n)_n$ is a sequence in $L(f)$ converging to some $y\in N$, then $y\in L(f)$. By definition, for each $n$, we can find a sequence $(x_k^n)_k$, containing no convergent subsequence, such that $f(x_k^n)\rightarrow y_n$ as $k\rightarrow\infty$. Both of these conditions are preserved by passing to a subsequence, so, by the Lemma, we can WLOG assume that $x_k^n\in K_i^c$ for all $n$ and $k\ge i$. Since $N$ is first-countable, there is a local neighborhood base $(U_n)_n$ of $y$. We assume $U_1\supseteq U_2\supseteq...$ WLOG. For each $n$, by definition of convergence, there is a $y_{k_n}$ such that $y_{k_n}\in U_n$. By definition of convergence, there is a $x_{l_n}^{k_n}$ such that $f(x^{k_n}_{l_n})\in U_n$. We also take $l_{n+1}>l_n$ WLOG. Then, $f(x^{k_n}_{l_n})\rightarrow y$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$. Also $x^{k_n}_{l_n}\in K_i^c$ for $l_n\ge i$ by construction, so, by the Lemma, $(x^{k_n}_{l_n})_n$ contains no convergent subsequence, hence $y\in L(f)$, as desired.

Lastly, of course, any manifold admits an exhaustion by sequentially compact sets and is first-countable, so the theorem in particular applies when $M,N$ are manifolds.

Thorgott
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  • Thanks for the great answer, I just have a question why can we assume that $x^n_k\in K_i$ for all $k\geq i$. We know that for each $n$ we can find a $k_n$ such that that is true but I don;t see how you get one that works for all $n$. @Thorgott – Someone Nov 08 '20 at 15:37
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    Fix $n$. There is an index $k_1$ such that $x_k^n\in K_1^c$ for all $k\ge k_1$. Then, there is an index $k_2>k_1$ such that $x_k^n\in K_2^c$ for all $k\ge k_2$. Continue recursively, then replace the sequence $(x_k^n)k$ with the sequence $(x{k_i}^n)i$. This sequence satisfies the same hypotheses and also $x{k_j}^n\in K_i^c$ for $j\ge i$ by construction. Now, of course, the indices $k_i$ depend also on $n$ and I'm suppressing that notationally, but the point is that after replacing the sequence by that subsequence, this is a non-issue. – Thorgott Nov 08 '20 at 16:10