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can i say that a degenerate productory like

$$ \prod_{t=1}^{0} (1+r_t) $$

is equal to one? I cant seem to find a precise answer about this anywhere.

Lucas
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1 Answers1

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Yes – if you don't multiply by anything at all, it's the same as if you had multiplied by $1.$ That's why $x^0=1$ and why $0!=1.$

Michael Hardy
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