A) Yes, $Y$ is a legitimate random variable as obtained through a legitimate operation (max) between two random variables: $X$ (with its exponential distribution) and a constant random variable equal to $a$ (with its pdf $\delta(x-a)$).
B) Let us work with the cdf of $Y$:
$$F_Y(x)=P(Y<x)=\begin{cases}0&\text{if }x<a\\P(X<x)=F_X(x)=1-e^{\lambda x}&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}\tag{1}$$
You can write (1) under the form:
$$F_Y(x)=e^{-\lambda x}U(x-a)\tag{2}$$
where $U$ is the unit step function at the origin ($0$ for negative arguments, $1$ for positive arguments, with derivative the $\delta(x)$ density function).
If we differentiate the cdf expression (2), we get the pdf into two parts :
$$f_Y(x)=\underbrace{P(X<a)\delta(x-a)}_{\text{accounting for the jump in } x=a (*)}+e^{-\lambda x}$$
(*) : with $P(X<a)=F_Y(a)=(1-e^{-\lambda a})$. Intuitively, by taking the "max", all the "mass" $1-e^{-\lambda a}$ before $x=a$ has been moved into $x=a$.
It remains a little issue: Mathematica gives for the first term:
$$(1-e^{-\lambda x})\delta(x-a) \ \text{instead of } \ \ (1-e^{-\lambda a})\delta(x-a)$$
This is in fact the same thing because, for any function $\varphi$, $\varphi(x)\delta(x-a)$ is the same as $\varphi(a)\delta(x-a)$
(intuition: $\delta(x-a)$ ignores what is outside $x=a$).
Mathematica's result is right!