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Suppose the function $f : \mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}$ is such that $f(1)=1$ and $$f(2m) + f(2n) = 2(f(m+n) + f(m-n))$$ for all $m>n>0$. I would like to show that this implies $f(n) = n^2$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$.

It is easy to show that $f(n)=n^2$ is a solution, just by substituting, but I'm having trouble proving uniqueness. I know about mathematical induction but in this case, the fact that there are two variables $m$ and $n$ is giving me trouble. Any help appreciated.

Added: the part that's giving me trouble is that I cannot assume that $f(0)$ exists. If I could assume that, then $f(0)=0$ by putting $m=n=0$, and then by putting $m=n$ I could show that $f(2m) = 4f(m)$, from which it's not hard to continue.

I guess my question is: am I allowed to extend $f$ by defining $f(0)=0$, and use that in my reasoning? It seems like cheating somehow.

jackzip
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  • That it is the only solution, I think. – Joshua Wang Nov 15 '20 at 15:29
  • Only an idea: Take $m\geq 3$. Taking $n=1$ and $n=2$ gives to you two relations; you can eliminate $f(2m)$, and this gives to you something like $f(m+2)-f(m+1)-f(m-1)+f(m-2)=(f(4)-f(2))/2$, that perhaps you can solve... I have not verified if this idea works...Sorry but I must quit.. – Kelenner Nov 15 '20 at 16:54
  • @Kelenner I tried using a recurrence relation like yours. The issue I ran into was that we ultimately need to determine initial values like $f(2), f(3), f(4) $ (IE to determine the specific solution), and I couldn't find a way to do so (that wasn't iteratively listing out numerous cases like my solution). – Calvin Lin Nov 16 '20 at 16:56
  • @Calvin Lin My idea was to put $(f(4)-f(2))/2=d$, and to solve the linear recurrence equation $f(m+2)-f(m+1)-f(m-1)+f(m-2)=d$. There is a particular solution of the form $cm^2$ (if my computations are good, $\frac{d}{6}m^2$). We need now compute the general solution of the homogeneous recurrence.. The characteristic polynomial is $(x-1)^2(x^2+x+1)$, so there exists $v,v,w,q$ such that $f(m)=cm^2+u+vm+wj^m+qj^{2m}$ with $j$, $j^2$ the usual cubic roots of the unity. Now we replace in the original equation, to (perhaps...) show that $u,v,w,q$ must be $0$. – Kelenner Nov 16 '20 at 18:53
  • @Kelenner A) Note that the general solution doesn't include $cm^2$, only $u+vm$. B)The form of the particular solution can be tricky to determine, esp because you have the difference of several terms. IE Why must it just be quadratic? C) The particular solution will also require you to calculate $f(2), f(3), f(4), f(5), f(6)$ (which was my comment). D) I agree that we can likely use different $m, n$ values to show that $u, v, w, q $ are all 0. – Calvin Lin Nov 16 '20 at 20:10
  • @Calvin Lin I have try to make more clear my idea as an answer. Please say to me if you see any problem in this solution. Thanks in advance. – Kelenner Nov 17 '20 at 08:15

2 Answers2

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I'm not quite satisfied with this solution, but it's the best I can come up with. All my approaches ultimately depend on finding initial values like $f(2), f(3), f(4)$, for which I had no motivating approach other than trying numerous cases and hoping it eventually works out.


The following 2 equations are the most important that we'd use:

Calculating powers of 2 from smaller powers of 2: $$f(2^{k+1} ) + f(2^k) = 2 f(3\times 2^{k-1}) + 2 f( 2^{k-1} ) = 4 f(2^k) + 4 f( 2^{k-1} )$$

Calculating multiples of $2^{k-a}$ from multiples of $2^{k-a+1}$:
Where $O$ is an odd number,
$$f( \frac{O+1}{2} \times 2^{k-a+1}) + f( \frac{O-1}{2} \times 2^{k-a+1}) =2 f( O \times 2^{k-a} ) + f( 2^{k-a} ).$$

Claim 1: Let $ f(2) = a, f(4) = b$. Then, the rest of the values could be determined from these unknowns.

Proof of claim 1: We do so by induction, showing that we can determine the values from $f(2^k+1)$ to $f(2^{k+1})$.
We use the first equation to get $2^{k+2}$, then use the second equation to calculate the odd multiples of $2^{k}$ less than $2^{k+2}$, then calculate the odd multiples of $2^{k-1}$ less than $2^{k+2}$, then calculate the odd multiples of $2^{k-2}$ less than $2^{k+2}$, so on and so forth. $_\square$

Note: While we have determined these values through the equations, we still have to ensure that the all of the equations hold in general. It is by verifying these equations that we get more information.

Claim 2: We can show that $f(4) = 3f(2) + 4$, and that $f(2) = 4$.

Corollary: With $f(1) = 1, f(2) = 4, f(4) = 16$, we can repeat the induction at the start (once again working with the powers of 2 then multiples of $2^{k-a}$) and prove that $f(n) = n^2$.
Finally, verify that with $ f(n) = n^2$, both equations hold in all generality. So this is indeed a solution.

Proof of Claim 2: We can list out some of the these values, with the sequence obtained via the above algorithm:

$f(1) = 1$
$f(2) = a$
$f(4) = b$
$f(3) = (a+b-2) / 2 $
$f(8) = 4a+3b$
$f(6) = a+2b$
$f(5) = (a+3b-2) /2$
$f(7) = (5a+5b-2)/2$

With $ f(8) + f(2) = 2f(5) + 2f(3)$, we get that $ b = 3a + 4$. Rewriting the above list, we have
$f(1) = 1$
$f(2) = a$
$f(3) = 2a+1$
$f(4) = 3a + 4$
$f(5) = 5a + 5$
$f(6) = 7a+8$
$f(7) = 10a + 9$
$f(8) = 13a + 12$

There seems to be nothing further we can do, so let's generate more values.

$f(16) = 51a+52$
$f(12) = 29a + 28$
$f(10) = 20a+20$
$f(9) = (33a+30) / 2$
(I skipped listing out the rest)

With $f(16) + f(2) = 2 f(9) + 2 f(7) $, we get that $ a = 4$.
(With this value, you can check that the listed ones work out to $f(n) = n^2$.)$_\square$

Calvin Lin
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  • Once you know $a$ and $b$ then you know $f(n)=n^2$ because the sequence is uniquely determined by $a$ and $b$. No need to check all the listed ones. So I think your solution is not bad, just needs a little cleanup. – Neat Math Nov 15 '20 at 22:00
  • Thank you. I didn't think of jumping forward instead of back (to $f(0)$) and playing with the values like you did. Very nice. – jackzip Nov 16 '20 at 01:21
  • @NeatMath I agree with your comment, which is why that part is a comment in parenthesis. It is helpful to verify at several points that we are still on track, and that we've not been making arithmetic mistakes. – Calvin Lin Nov 16 '20 at 16:49
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Ok, I try to explain completely my idea.

First, taking $n=1$, $n=2$, $m\geq 3$, eliminating $f(2m)$, we obtain that

$$f(m+2)-f(m+1)-f(m-1)+f(m-2)=(f(4)-f(2))/2 $$ and we put $d=(f(4)-f(2))/2$. This is a linear recurrence equation; we solve it completely, we do not care about particular values of $f(m)$ for the moment. The general solution is of the form (particular solution+general solution of the homogeneous equation).

We try to find a particular solution of the form $cm^2$, and we find $cm^2$, with $c=d/6$.

Now the homogeneous equation ; the polynomial characteristic of the recurrence is $(x-1)^2(x^2+x+1)$, with a double root $1$, and simple roots $j$, $j^2$ (notation for the cubic roots of unity). So the general solution of the homogeneous recurrence equation is of the form $u+vm+wj^{m}+qj^{2m}$ for some constants $u,v,w,q$. (note that for example, $j^m+j^{2m}$ is in $\mathbb{R}$, and a solution of the homogeneous recurrence equation ; we cannot, at this point, eliminate these terms).

So, what we have proven is that a solution of the original equation is of the form

$$f(m)=cm^2+u+vm+wj^{m}+qj^{2m}$$ Now we replace in the original equation:

$$4cm^2+u+2mv+wj^{2m}+qj^{4m}+4cn^2+u+2nv+wj^{2n}+qj^{4n}$$ is equal to $$2[c(m+n)^2+u+v(m+n)+wj^{m+n}+qj^{2(m+n)}+c(m-n)^2+u+v(m-n)+wj^{m-n}+qj^{2(m-n)}]$$

Now the expression of a recurrence sequence (here we fix $n$, and $m$ is the variable) as $\sum\alpha \beta^m$ is unique. So we look at the coefficients of $1,m,m^2, j^m, j^{2m}$. The coefficient of $m$ on the first side is $2v$; on the second side, $4v$. Hence $v=0$. The coefficient of $j^{m}$ on the first side is $q$, on the second side $2w(j^n+ j^{-n})$, hence $q=2w(j^n+ j^{-n})$; the coefficients of $j^{2m}$ give also $w=2q(j^{2n}+j^{-2n})$; choosing $n=3$ gives $q=w=0$. The constant coefficient is (using $v=w=q=0$) $2u+4cn^2$ in the first expression,and $4u+4cn^2$ in the second, hence we get $u=0$, and we have proven that a solution of the original equation must be of the form $c m^2$ for some constant $c$. It is easy to finish.

Kelenner
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  • +1 This looks good. This is more in line with how I hoped the solution would have looked like. Thanks for pushing through. – Calvin Lin Nov 17 '20 at 15:13