0

Okay people, $\Im$ stupid. I have been working on this for literal 2 days but still I can't understand.

Here is the question: $$\frac x{x+2}>0\land\frac{x+1}{x+2}<1$$ What's the solution set? [Answer is $(0,\infty)$]

I found first inequality means $x > 0$ and second one says $x > -2$ but that doesn't make the solution set given by my lecturer which is $(0,\infty)$.

Parcly Taxel
  • 103,344

3 Answers3

1

The issue with your reasoning is when you multiply by a negative number, the inequality sign changes. Therefore, it is not true that $x > 0$ for all real $x$, but only when $x + 2 > 0$.

For the first part, I recommend that you split into cases. When $x + 2 > 0$, you do get $x > 0$. But when $x + 2 < 0$, then multiplying by $x+2$ on both sides gives:

$$x \color{red}{<} x+2 $$

which is true for all $x$ in the condition. Therefore, the possible values of $x$ are $x > 0, x < -2$.

For the second part, $-\frac{1}{x+2} < 0$ is correct so you can continue. From here, multiply by $-1$ to get:

$$\frac{1}{x+2} \color{red}{>} 0$$

and now use a similar method to find the possible values of $x$.

Toby Mak
  • 16,827
0

The best way to solve this kind of inequalities is not to split to different cases but to $\underline{\text{combine the fractions}}$.

For your first inequality: $$\frac{x}{x+2} >0 \iff x(x+2)>0 \iff x \in (-\infty, -2)\cup (0, \infty) \tag 1$$

For your second inequality: $$\frac{x+1}{x+2} < 1 \iff \frac{x+1}{x+2}-1 = - \frac{1}{x+2} < 0 \iff x+2 >0 \tag 2$$

Combine (1) and (2) you get $x>0$.

For another example, see Solving basic inequality

Neat Math
  • 4,790
0

ok so lets first consider the first inequality: $$\frac{x}{x+2}>0\tag{1}$$ for this to be true either $x>0$ so the top and bottom are both positive, or we can have $x<-2$ and so the solution for this inequality would be $x\in(-\infty,-2)\wedge(0,\infty)$.


Now for the second: $$\frac{x+1}{x+2}<1\tag{2}$$ $$1-\frac{1}{x+2}<1$$ $$-\frac 1{x+2}<0$$ $$\frac{1}{x+2}>0$$ and it is clear from this that the solution is $x>-2$ and so: $x\in(-2,\infty)$. Now for both to be simultaneously true we need to find where these domains overlap, which would be $x\in(0,\infty)$

Henry Lee
  • 12,215