Let $X$ be an integral scheme and let $\eta \in X$ be its generic point. Then the local ring $K(X) := \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$ is a field. Moreover, if $U = \text{Spec} A$ is any open affine subset of $X$, then $K(X) \cong \text{Frac} A$.
I would like to prove this proposition. I have already seen a proof that I understand, for example here. But I would like to see if my partial approach can somehow be extended to a full proof.
Since $X$ is integral, $A$ is an integral domain and $\text{Frac} A$ is well-defined and a field. So we only need to show the last part.
Let $U = \text{Spec} A$ be an affine open subset of $X$. Then since $\eta$ is the generic point, it is contained in all open subsets of $X$.
We have $A=\mathcal{O}_X(U)$ so $\text{Frac} A = \{ f/g \ | \ f, g \in \mathcal{O}_{X}(U), \ g\neq0 \}$. Define the map \begin{align*} \phi: \text{Frac} A &\to K(X) = \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}\\ f/g & \mapsto (U \cap D(g), f/g). \end{align*}
- Consider $(U \cap D(g), g) \in \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$. Provided $(U \cap D(g), g) \notin m_{\eta}$, then this element has an inverse $(U \cap D(g), 1/g) \in \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$ and we can multiply it with $(U \cap D(g), f) \in \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$. This is how our map $\phi$ is defined.
So we now show that $(U \cap D(g), g) \notin m_\eta$. How do we show that?
- It is obvious that $\phi$ is a ring homomorphism.
Let $f/g \in \ker \phi$. Then $(U \cap D(g), f/g) =0 \in \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$ and so the product $(U \cap D(g), f)(U \cap D(g), 1/g) =0 \in \mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$. Because $X$ is integral, $\mathcal{O}_{X, \eta}$ has no zero-divisors. Since $(U \cap D(g), 1/g)$ is a unit, it is not $0$, hence we must have $(U \cap D(g), f)=0$. So there is an open set $V \subset U \cap D(g)$ such that $f$ restricted to $V$ is $0$. So $f(\eta)=0$ and because $\eta$ is dense in $U$ and $\mathcal{O}_X(U)$ has no nilpotent elements we have $f=0$. So $\phi$ is injective. How to prove surjectivity?