I have a "simple" question about field extension, let me say, $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi) \subsetneq\mathbb{Q}({\pi})??$
I know that $\pi^2-\pi \in \mathbb{Q}(\pi)$ so we have $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi) \subset\mathbb{Q}({\pi})$, but why $\pi \notin \mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi)$?
I've tried this way: If $\pi \in \mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi)$ then $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^2) \subset \mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi), $ but this is ok, since $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^2) \subset \mathbb{Q}(\pi)$.
Another way is: If $\pi \in \mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi) $ then $\pi = \frac {p(\pi^2 - \pi)}{q(\pi^2-\pi)}$, what is the contradiction?
I cannot see the contradiction, but my professor told me that $[\mathbb{Q}(\pi): \mathbb{Q}(\pi^2-\pi)]=2$ (I have no ideia how to prove that).