I understand that part of this question has been addressed before (here), but I am confused about the uniqueness of a Lagrange interpolant.
Given any field $F$, I am trying to prove the existence and uniqueness of a Lagrange interpolant in $F[x]$ for any function $f$ from $F$ to itself over a set of distinct $n$ points :$(x_1,f(x_1)) \dots (x_n,f(x_n))$, where each $x_1 \dots x_n$ is unique. Following the proof outlined here, I see that it says the proof for both the existence and uniqueness of a Lagrange interpolant is satisfied for any given field, which implies that it also satisfied for finite fields. However, there are finitely many functions from $F$ to itself and there are infinitely many polynomials in $F[x]$. I also see that from this post, a polynomial function in a finite field can be given by multiple polynomials. Would this not imply that the uniqueness of a Lagrange interpolant need not hold over a finite field?
Any clarification about how the proof of uniqueness for a Lagrange interpolant over a finite field would be much appreciated!