I do not have a very strong knowledge of bipolar sets and all this stuff. Thus it could be that the question is rather easy. However I was not able to prove by myself the closedness of the following set:
We are looking at the space $L^\infty(\Omega,\mathcal{A},P)$ with a probability measure $P$. Then it is well known that the space $ba(P)$ of bounded finitely additive signed measures on $(\Omega,\mathcal{A})$, which are absolutely continuous with respect to $P$ is the dual space of $L^\infty$. Suppose $C$ is a set in $L^\infty$, which is a convex cone containing $0$ and norm closed. Therefore it is also $\sigma(L^\infty,ba)$-closed. With $C^\circ$ we denote the polar cone of $C$, which is convex and $\sigma(ba,L^\infty)$-closed. Now I'm interested in the following set:
$$K:=\{\mu\in C^\circ:\mu(\Omega)=1\}$$
This set is clearly convex, but why is it again closed in $\sigma(ba,L^\infty)$? Thanks in advance for your help.