I'm looking for different but equivalent definitions of the concept of open map. So Let $X,Y$ be topological spaces and $f:X\longrightarrow Y$ a function, not assumed to be continuous. I conjectured the following equivalence:
1) $f$ is open, i.e. sends open subsetes of $X$ in open subsets of $Y$;
2) $f(x)\in\overline{B}\Rightarrow x\in\overline{f^{-1}(B)}$, for every $x\in X,B\subseteq Y$.
For 1)$\Rightarrow$ 2) i did: let $f(x)\in\overline{B}$, suppose $x\notin\overline{f^{-1}(B)}$. Hence i can find an open $U$ around $x$ not intersecting $f^{-1}(B)$ and mapping $U$ via $f$, i can also find an open of $Y$ containing $f(x)$ and not intersecting $\overline{B}$, which is against assumptions.
Could someone help me proving (or disproving) the reverse implication? Thanks