Let $c>0$ be a constant and $n$ go to infinity.
Asymptotically why is it the case that $\frac{c^{2(\log\log n)+1}-1}{c-1}\sim \log n^{2\log c}$ ?
I don't think it changes anything but the actual relation is $$\frac{2c\log\log n}{n}\frac{c^{2(\log\log n)+1}-1}{c-1}\sim\frac{2c\log\log n}{n}\log n^{2\log c}$$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$.
I don't see how this is true.
I've tried to transform the left value but I don't see how we $\log c$ can appear. And Why does $c<1$ versus $>1$ not matter?
Could the relation be true if we replace $\sim$ by $\lesssim$? (i.e. left =$O$(right))?