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How would I prove that if $(2^p)-1$ is not prime, there is not a prime number less than p that divides it? (any hints for a proof by contradiction?) I have assumed that there is a prime divisor less than p, let's say q. But I am unsure of where to go from there.

  • Hagen von Eitzen's answer is good, but the implication he mentions becomes more obvious when you use modular arithmetic. – subrosar Dec 09 '20 at 21:40

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By Fermat, we know $q\mid 2^{q-1}-1$. Than note that $q\mid 2^a-1$ and $q\mid 2^b-1$ implies $q\mid 2^{\gcd(a,b)}-1$.