(Personal note: there is an incredible amount of questions whose title consists in some permutation of the words I chose for the title, and I guess someone may have already answered. I swear I looked many of them up to see if someone did. If I missed it, I am sorry for repeating it.)
Be $X_t:=\int_0^t e^s\text d W_s$, and $Y_t:=\int_0^t X_s\text dW_s$. Find $\mathbb E\left[Y_t\right]$ and $\mathbb V\left[Y_t\right]$.
I see that $Y_t$ must be a martingale because it is just the martingale part of an Itô integral (even if the integrand is given as an Itô integral?), so I state $\mathbb E\left[Y_t\right]=0$.
That said, $\mathbb V\left[Y_t\right]= \mathbb E\left[\left(\int_0^t X_s\text dW_s\right)^2\right]= \mathbb E\left[\int_0^t X_s^2\text d s\right]$ by Itô isometry. But by Itô lemma, $$\text d X_s = e^s\text d W_s\Rightarrow\text d (X_s^2)=2X_s\text d X_s+\frac 12 e^{2s}\text ds=2\int_0^s e^u\text d W_u e^s\text d W_s+\frac 12 e^{2s}\text ds.$$
i) is the general reasoning sound? To me, everything seems to make sense, but I am absolutely not sure.
ii) How do I go past the expression for the variance?