I'm going over old exam problems and I got stuck on this one. Suppose that $\mathbb{f}\colon \mathbb{D} \to \mathbb{C}$ is analytic and bounded. Let $\{a_n\}_{n=1}^\infty$ be the non-zero zeros of $\mathbb{f}$ in $\mathbb{D}$ counted according to multiplicity. Show that $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left( 1 - \left|a_n \right|\right)\lt\infty $$ I can understand that $\left|a_n \right|$ goes to $1$ since zeros are isolated, but it doesn't help showing the series is convergent. Any help will be appreciated!
2 Answers
This is known as Blaschke's condition and is in fact also true for functions in the so called Nevanlinna class. The simplest way to prove this is using Jensen's formula.
Assume $f \in H^\infty$. You may as well assume that $f(0) \neq 0$ and that $f$ has infinitely many zeros. Let $n(r)$ be the number of zeros in the disc $D_r$. Fix any integer $k$ and choose $r < 1$ so large that $n(r) > k$. By Jensen's formula, $$ |f(0)| \prod_{n=1}^{n(r)} \frac{r}{|a_n|} = \exp\left( \frac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \log|f(re^{i\theta})|\,d\theta \right). $$
Hence (if $|f(z)| < M$ on $D$): $$ |f(0)| \prod_{n=1}^{k} \frac{r}{|a_n|} \le |M|. $$
In other words $$ \prod_{n=1}^{k} |a_n| \ge \frac{|f(0)|}{|M|} r^k $$ for every $k$. Letting $r \to 1$ and $k\to\infty$ it follows that $$ \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} |a_n| \ge \frac{|f(0)|}{|M|} > 0, $$ which implies that $\sum_{n=1}^\infty (1-|a_n|) < \infty$.
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1You beat me by a few seconds :) – Ayman Hourieh May 17 '13 at 21:12
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How do you know that the infinite product converges? – Rick Sanchez Apr 21 '16 at 16:25
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@Rick: the partial products are decreasing (and by the argument above bounded away from $0$). – mrf Apr 21 '16 at 16:32
First, assume $f(0) \ne 0$. Let $r < 1$ and $n(r)$ be the number of zeros of $f$ inside $\overline{D}(0, r)$. Let $k$ be a positive integer so that $k < n(r)$. By Jensen's formula: $$ \left|f(0)\right| \prod_{n=1}^{n(r)}\frac{r}{\left|\alpha_n\right|} = \exp \left\{\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^\pi \log\left|f(re^{i\theta})\right|\right\} $$
Since $f$ is bounded (say by $M > 0$), we have: $$ \prod_{n=1}^{k}\left|\alpha_n\right| \ge \frac{\left|f(0)\right|r^k}{M} $$
Now, by letting $r \to 1$, we get: $$ \prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\left|\alpha_n\right| \ge \frac{\left|f(0)\right|}{M} > 0 $$
Which implies that: $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(1 - \left|\alpha_n\right|\right) < \infty $$
Finally, if $f(0) = 0$. Put $f(z) = z^m g(z)$ where $g(0) \ne 0$ and apply the reasoning above to $g$. Since $g$ and $f$ have the same zeros apart from $z = 0$, the result follows for $f$.
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@mrf Amazing indeed. And this isn't the first time I see it happen! – Ayman Hourieh May 17 '13 at 21:15
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Thank you very much for both of you. The answer and timing is amazing! – BigTree May 17 '13 at 21:36