A question I found stated that:
Given $$\frac{d}{dx}F(ax) = G(x)$$
then $$\frac{d}{dx}F(2ax) = \dots$$
with choices:
1.) G(2ax)
2.) G(ax)
3.) 2G(2x)
4.) 2G(x)
I got the third option as the answer by assuming that
$F(ax) = \sin(ax)$ and therefore $F'(ax)= G(x) = a\cos(ax)$
and hence:
$F(2ax) = \sin(2ax)$ and therefore $F'(2ax)= 2a\cos(2ax) = 2G(2x)$
I then tested with $F(ax) = (ax)^2$ and $F(ax) = \log(ax)$ with same result as above.
Is there a general rule to proof the statement: if $F'(ax) = G(x)$, then $F'(nax) = nG(nx)$?