Let $X$ be a Banach space and let $A\colon X\to X^*$ be a linear operator satisfying $$(Ax)(x)\geq 0\quad\forall x\in X.$$ Show that $A\in L(X,X^*)$.
Here, $L(X,X^*)$ stands for the set of bounded linear transformations from $X$ to $X^*$ (the set of bounded linear functionals on $X$). By considering the identity $(A(x+y))(x+y) \geq 0$ and $(A(x-y))(x-y) \geq 0$ (I think) I was able to show that $A$ was bounded if and only if the expression $(Ax)(x)$ was bounded (across $|x| \leq 1$). But this doesn't seem to help much as I don't know how to show this expression is bounded. Does anyone have any ideas of how I could solve this one?
EDIT:
I asked this question on Reddit as well and someone proposed the following counter example that I cannot find fault in.
Let bₙ, n ∈ ℕ, be a countable set of linear independent vectors and bⁿ their duals. Complete bₙ to an algebraic basis of X. Set Abₙ = n⋅bⁿ and 0 on the other basis vectors
It'd be nice if someone could help explain what's wrong with this logic (or confirm that this question is in fact faulty as stated).
But what if we take for example $X = \ell^2$ and $b_n = e_n$ where $e_n$ is the $n$-th standard basis vector. Then isn't $b^n = e_n^T$. That is $b^n(x)$ just returns the $i$-th coordinate of $x$. Doesn't this work as a counterexample with $|b^n| = 1$?
– Rioghasarig Dec 20 '20 at 16:53