Calculate $$\lim_{x\to0}\frac{(x+32)^{1/5}-2}{x}$$ without L'Hôpital's rule.
My attempt: I first rationalized the expression to get $$\left(\frac{(x+32)^{1/5}-2}{x}\right)\left(\frac{(x+32)^{1/5}+2}{(x+32)^{1/5}+2}\right)=\frac{x+28}{x((x+32)^{1/5}+2)}$$ How should I get rid of the singular $x$ in the denominator now? Should I factor something here?
\fracin exponents or limits of integrals. It looks bad and confusing, and it rarely appears in professional mathematics typesetting. – GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會 Jan 06 '21 at 09:44