Now I've seen this before but I forgot how to do it. (by the way, this is without the use of t-formula). It gets difficult when the angles are not the same but I split the fraction on the LHS up and got and stuff in terms of $\csc{x}$ and $\cot{x}$. I then used the identity $1 + cot^2{x} = csc^2{x}$ but am still stuck on reaching something in terms of $\frac{x}{2}$.Is there any neat efficient solution?
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4hint: $$1-\cos x =2\sin^2 (x/2)$$ $$sinx=2\sin(x/2)\cos(x/2)$$ – Albus Dumbledore Jan 10 '21 at 12:55
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Huh I've never seen that identity before. Where is that from? Solves it nicely though – user71207 Jan 10 '21 at 12:59
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see https://mathworld.wolfram.com/Double-AngleFormulas.html – Albus Dumbledore Jan 10 '21 at 13:03
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1Oh oh yeah I know that. Except you make $2x$ --> $x$ . Nice – user71207 Jan 10 '21 at 13:10
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Yes. Sorry for the repost – user71207 Jan 10 '21 at 13:14
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$${1-\cos x\over \sin x}={2\sin^2 \frac x2 \over 2\sin \frac x2 \cos \frac x2}=\tan \frac x2$$
A-Level Student
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Saikai Prime
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You can use the Weierstraß substitution: setting $t=\tan\frac x2$, you have $$\cos x=\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2},\qquad \sin x =\frac{2t}{1+t^2}.$$
Bernard
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