Continuation of the idea suggested by Vlad Matei
Let $\displaystyle f(x)\triangleq\sum_{i\geq 0} a_i x^i$ and $\displaystyle g(x)\triangleq \sum_{i\geq 0} \cfrac{x^{i}}{i+1}$.
Then, we get
$$ f(x)^Kg(x) = \sum_{n\geq 0}b_nx^n \text{ with } b_n=\sum_{\substack{i_{0},i_{1},\cdots,i_{K}\ge 0\\i_{0}+i_{1}+\cdots+i_{K}=n}}\dfrac{a_{i_{1}}a_{i_{2}}\cdots a_{i_{K}}}{i_{0}+1}.$$
Since $b_n=0$ for $n\geq 1$, we get
\begin{align}
f(x)^Kg(x)&=b_0=-1\\
\implies \left(\sum_{i\geq 0} a_i x^i\right)^K&=\frac{-1}{g(x)}=\frac{x}{\sum_{i\geq 1} -\cfrac{x^{i}}{i}}=\frac{x}{\ln(1-x)}\\
\implies\sum_{i\geq 0} a_i x^i &= \left(\frac{x}{\ln(1-x)}\right)^{1/K}.
\end{align}
Thus, using the Tyalor series expansion,
$$ a_i=\frac{1}{i!}\frac{d^i}{dx^i}\left(\frac{x}{\ln(1-x)}\right)^{1/K} \Bigg|_{x=0}>0\iff \frac{d^i}{dx^i}\left(\frac{x}{\ln(1-x)}\right)^{1/K} \Bigg|_{x=0}>0.$$