Does the converse of this question hold true? Explicitly, is a commutative square $$\begin{matrix} A & \stackrel a \to & X\\\llap{\scriptstyle a'}\downarrow&&\downarrow\rlap{\scriptstyle b'}\\Y & \stackrel b \to & B \end{matrix}$$ cocartesian if the induced maps $\operatorname{coker}a \to \operatorname{coker}b$ and $\operatorname{coker}a' \to\operatorname{coker}b'$ are isomorphisms?
Actually, I see no reason why this should be true, but maybe someone has a nice counter example and/or can elaborate on the problem.