I was asked to define the next intergrals and I want to know if I did it right:
$$1) \int^\infty_a f(x)dx = \lim_{b \to \infty}\int^b_af(x)dx$$
$$2) \int^b_{-\infty} f(x)dx = \lim_{a \to -\infty}\int^b_af(x)dx$$
$$3) \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(x)dx = \lim_{b \to \infty}\int^b_0f(x)dx + \lim_{a \to -\infty}\int^0_af(x)dx$$
Thanks.
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doraemonpaul
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Ofir Attia
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Yes, you did.${}$ – David Mitra May 22 '13 at 11:22
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Ok, thank you very much! – Ofir Attia May 22 '13 at 11:23
2 Answers
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In some cases, such as Fourier transformation, it is critical that we have
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx \, f(x) = \lim_{a \to \infty} \int_{-a}^{a} dx \, f(x)$$
Ron Gordon
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The first two definitions you gave are the standard definitions, for $f$ say continuous everywhere. The third is more problematical, It is quite possible that the definition in your course is $$\lim_{a\to-\infty, b\to \infty} \int_a^b f(x)\,dx.$$ So $a\to-\infty$, $b\to\infty$ independently.
What you wrote down would then be a fact rather than a definition.
André Nicolas
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