Note that this is just the Binomial Theorem truncated to the first two terms, i.e.
$$ (B\!+\!C)^{n}\! = B^{n}\! + n B^{n-1} C + C^2(\cdots)\, \equiv\, B^n + n B^{n-1} C\ \pmod{C^2}$$
It is true in any ring where $\,\color{#c00}{BC = CB}.\,$ An inductive proof is easy. The base case $\,n= 0\,$ is true, being $\, 1 = 1.\,$ Suppose as inductive hypothesis that it is true for $\, n = k.\,$ The inductive step is
$$\begin{eqnarray}(B+C)^{k+1} &=\,& (B+C)^{k}(B+C)\\ &=\,& (B^k+kB^{k-1}C)(B+C)\quad {\rm by\ the\ induction\ hypothesis} \\ &=\,& B^{k+1}+ B^k C + kB^{k-1}\color{#c00}{CB} + kB^{k-1}C^2 \\ &=\,& B^{k+1}+(k\!+\!1) B^k C\ \ \ {\rm by}\ \ \color{#c00}{CB = BC},\ \ C^2\equiv 0\end{eqnarray}$$