Let $(M_s)$ a martingale s.t. $\mathbb E[M_t^2]<\infty $. Regarding the proof of $$\mathbb E[\sup_{0\leq s\leq t}M_s]\leq 4\mathbb E[M_t^2],$$
the person who answer the question in this post mention that $$\mathbb P\left\{\sup_{s\in [0,t]}|M_s|\geq y\right\}\leq \frac{\mathbb E(|M_t|1_{\{\sup_{s\in [0,t]}|M_s|\geq y\}})}{y},$$ and I don't understand why this should be true. The best I know is $$\mathbb P\left\{\sup_{s\in [0,t]}|M_s|\geq y\right\}\leq \frac{\mathbb E(|M_t|)}{y},$$ which is Doob inequality. But I don't get how we can get to $$\mathbb P\left\{\sup_{s\in [0,t]}|M_s|\geq y\right\}\leq \frac{\mathbb E(|M_t|1_{\{\sup_{s\in [0,t]}|M_s|\geq y\}})}{y}.$$ Any idea ?