I'm looking for a function $f(z)$ with $\int \limits^x_0 f(z)dz=1-(1-x)^s$ where $0<s=\log_t2<1$ ($t>2$). The derivative of the integral leads to $f(x)=s(1-x)^{s-1}$, but if one integrates this function, the original area function couldn't be calculated. What's wrong here with my considerations?
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Integrate within limits $0$ to $x$;
$ \int_0^x f(z)dz=\int_0^x s(1-t)^{s-1}dt$
$=\left(-(1-t)^s\right )_0^x$
$=-(1-x)^s+1$
Nitin Uniyal
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damn, my brain must be switched off, thank you :) – buja Jan 25 '21 at 18:24