Let $f,g:D\rightarrow \mathbb{S}^2$ where $D$ is the disk $\{(x,y)|x^2+y^2\le 1\}$, such that for $(x,y) \in \mathbb{S}^1$ these functions are given by: $f(x,y)=(x,y,0)$ and $g(x,y) = (-y,x,0)$ show that there is a point $(x,y) \in D$ such that $f(x,y)=\pm g(x,y)$.
For context, this is a question on the consequences of $\pi_1(\mathbb{S}^1)=\mathbb{Z}$, my attempts were into finding a function $h:D \rightarrow D$(by projecting some composition of $f$ and $g$) such that it having a fixed point by Brower would imply the result, but I really can't see how the other conditions come into play in that case.
Another shot I've tried was to morph the disk to the upper hemisphere and finding $F,G:\mathbb{S}^2 \rightarrow\mathbb{S}^2$ extending $f,g$ through oddness but I can't see an easy way from which this would imply the result either. The main problem arises from the co-domain being the sphere, most of the results I've seen use that as the domain and prove the results arriving at a contradiction with the fundamental group of the circle.