I'm wondering if the following equation holds? Especially, if the second = is correct - or under which prerequisits it would be correct? $$\frac{\partial\alpha_{\Delta}}{\partial e_{\Delta}}\frac{d e_{\Delta}}{dt} = \frac{\partial(\alpha_1-\alpha_2)}{\partial (e_1-e_2)}\frac{d (e_1-e_2)}{dt} = \frac{\partial\alpha_1}{\partial e_1}\frac{d e_1}{dt} - \frac{\partial\alpha_2}{\partial e_2}\frac{d e_2}{dt}$$
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